Citations

SummaryObjectiveSeizures are common in patients with posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES), which is reported in up to 70% of cases, and antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly prescribed. There is a paucity of data regarding the risk of subsequent seizures following resolution of PRES, and therefore the optimal duration of treatment with AEDs is currently unknown. The objective of this study was to identify the frequency of recurrent seizures and epilepsy following recovery from PRES.MethodsWe performed a retrospective review of consecutive adults diagnosed with PRES between 2000 and 2010.ResultsOne hundred twenty‐seven patients, median age 53 years (interquartile range [IQR] 37–64), were included in the analysis. The most common causes of PRES were hypertension (72%) and immunosuppression (20%). Renal failure was present in 47%. Eighty‐four patients (66%) had seizures at presentation (39 focal, 45 generalized), and 13 (15%) of them presented with status epilepticus. Median duration of follow‐up was 3.2 years (IQR 4 months to 6.9 years). Patients with seizures were treated with AEDs for a median of 3 months (IQR 2–7). Fifteen patients (12%) had provoked seizures during the follow‐up period; in eight (53%) patients seizures were caused by recurrent PRES. Only three patients had subsequent unprovoked seizures, one of whom was considered to have developed epilepsy.SignificanceWe conclude that unprovoked seizures and epilepsy are uncommon in patients who have recovered from PRES. Discontinuation of AEDs following resolution of PRES should be considered, provided there is adequate control of risk factors, and absence of factors that could substantially lower the seizure threshold.

Abstract Prostate cancer is the second most common malignancy among men worldwide. Genome-wide association studies have identified 100 risk variants for prostate cancer, which can explain approximately 33% of the familial risk of the disease. We hypothesized that a comprehensive analysis of genetic variations found within the 3′ untranslated region of genes predicted to affect miRNA binding (miRSNP) can identify additional prostate cancer risk variants. We investigated the association between 2,169 miRSNPs and prostate cancer risk in a large-scale analysis of 22,301 cases and 22,320 controls of European ancestry from 23 participating studies. Twenty-two miRSNPs were associated (P < 2.3 × 10−5) with risk of prostate cancer, 10 of which were within 7 genes previously not mapped by GWAS studies. Further, using miRNA mimics and reporter gene assays, we showed that miR-3162-5p has specific affinity for the KLK3 rs1058205 miRSNP T-allele, whereas miR-370 has greater affinity for the VAMP8 rs1010 miRSNP A-allele, validating their functional role. Significance: Findings from this large association study suggest that a focus on miRSNPs, including functional evaluation, can identify candidate risk loci below currently accepted statistical levels of genome-wide significance. Studies of miRNAs and their interactions with SNPs could provide further insights into the mechanisms of prostate cancer risk. Cancer Discov; 5(4); 368–79. ©2015 AACR. See related commentary by Yousef, p. 351 This article is highlighted in the In This Issue feature, p. 333

Key Points Elderly patients with myeloma are heterogeneous and assessment strategies are needed to define the frailty profile. The proposed frailty score aims to better assess patients and provide them with more suitable therapies.

Abstract Background. nab-Paclitaxel in combination with gemcitabine has emerged as a new treatment option for patients with metastatic pancreatic cancer (MPC), based on superiority over gemcitabine demonstrated in the phase III MPACT trial. Previously, Karnofsky performance status (KPS) score and the presence of liver metastases were shown to be predictive of survival with nab-paclitaxel plus gemcitabine treatment. This analysis sought to further explore the relationship between clinical characteristics and survival in the MPACT trial and to identify potential predictors of overall survival and progression-free survival in patients with MPC. Materials and Methods. Cox regression models adjusted for stratification factors and a stepwise multivariate analysis of prespecified baseline prognostic factors were performed. Results. Treatment effect was significantly associated with survival, with a similar magnitude of reduction in risk of death compared with the previously reported primary analysis. Treatment effect consistently favored nab-paclitaxel plus gemcitabine across the majority of the prespecified factors. In addition to KPS score and presence of liver metastases, age and number of metastatic sites were independent prognostic factors of overall and progression-free survival. Baseline carbohydrate antigen 19-9 was not found to be an independent prognostic factor of survival in this analysis. Conclusion. The results of this analysis confirm broad utility of nab-paclitaxel plus gemcitabine for the treatment of MPC. In addition, these findings suggest that KPS score, presence of liver metastases, age, and number of metastatic sites are important predictors of survival that may be useful when making treatment decisions and designing future clinical trials.

Summary Objective To describe the etiologies, clinical presentations, outcomes, and predictors of postencephalitic epilepsy ( PE ) in a large series of adult patients with acute encephalitis. Methods We conducted a retrospective review of patients diagnosed with acute encephalitis at Mayo Clinic, Rochester, between January 2000 and December 2012. The patients were categorized into two groups based on the presence or absence of PE at last follow‐up. Multivariate logistic regression analysis was used to analyze factors associated with PE . Results We identified 198 consecutive patients (100 [50.5%] male and 98 [49.5%] female) with a median age of 58 years (range 41.8–69). Etiologies included viral infection (n = 95, 48%), autoimmune (n = 44, 22%), and unknown/others (n = 59, 30%). During hospitalization, seizures were seen in patients with autoimmune encephalitis (n = 24, 54.5%), unknown/others (n = 20, 33.9%), and viral encephalitis (n = 23, 24.2%). Interictal epileptiform discharges on electroencephalography (EEG) were present in 34 (54%), whereas periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges (PLEDs) and generalized periodic discharges (GPDs) were seen in 14 (41.2%) and 2 (5.9%) patients. Forty‐six patients with seizures (70.8%) had fluid‐attenuated inversion recovery ( FLAIR )/T 2 abnormalities, 20 (31.3%) diffusion abnormalities, and 43 (66.2%) cortical involvement. Good outcome at discharge among patients with seizures was seen in 8/23 patients with viral etiology (34.8%), 10/24 patients with autoimmune encephalitis (45.5%), and 12/20 patients with unknown cause (60%). PE was present in 43 patients (29.9%). On multivariate regression analysis, the factors associated with PE were generalized seizures during hospitalization (p = 0.03), focal seizures (p ≤ 0.001), and the presence of FLAIR /T 2 abnormalities on brain magnetic resonance imaging ( MRI ) (p = 0.003). Significance The presence of seizures during hospitalization and an abnormal brain MRI are the strongest predictors of the development of PE . The etiology of encephalitis, presence of focal neurologic deficits, and interictal EEG abnormalities did not influence the development of PE .