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Introduction: For cardiac transthyretin (ATTR) amyloidosis, bone scintigraphy has emerged as a noninvasive diagnostic tool. The use of different tracers, namely Pyrophosphate (PYP), 3,3-diphosphono-1,2-propanodicarboxylic acid (DPD), HydroxymethyleneDiphosphonate (HMDP), allow for the detection of amyloid deposits in the heart. The aim of this systematic review is to evaluate the diagnostic test accuracy of bone scintigraphy in ATTR and light chain (AL) amyloidosis. Methods: As part of the ASH AL Amyloidosis Diagnostic Guideline, we performed systematic reviews for 7 prioritized PICO questions related to the screening, diagnosis and organ involvement evaluation of AL amyloidosis. Electronic searches were conducted on PubMed, Embase, and the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials from inception till January 2024. Two reviewers independently and in duplicate performed title and abstract screening and full text article screening on LASER AI, with conflicts resolved by a third reviewer. Studies were eligible if they included patients that performed both a bone scintigraphy scan and an endomyocardial biopsy for suspicion of ATTR amyloidosis. Test positivity for the visual score was defined to be ≥2, for the heart over contralateral (H/CL) ratio it was > 1.5 at one hour and >1.3 at 3 hours. Diagnostic test accuracy measures of interest were sensitivity, specificity, positive and negative predictive value. Statistical analysis was performed on STATA 18.0. Grading of Recommendations Assessment, Development and Evaluation (GRADE) was used to assess the certainty of evidence. Results: After deduplication, we retrieved 29,237 studies from electronic databases. 12 studies with 1127 patients reported on visual score in patients suspected to have ATTR amyloidosis. The pooled sensitivity for visual score was 96% (95% CI 92.0-98.0) while specificity was 90% (95% CI 84.0-95.0) (Certainty of evidence (COE): Moderate ⨁⨁⨁◯). 3 studies reported on ATTR visual score in combination with evaluating for monoclonal gammopathy, the pooled sensitivity was decreased to 93% (95% CI 65-99) and while specificity increased to 99% (95% CI 80-100) (COE: Moderate ⨁⨁⨁◯). H/CL was evaluated in 5 studies with 189 patients; pooled sensitivity was 97% (95% CI 89.0-99.0) and specificity was 88% (95% CI 64-97) (COE: Low ⨁⨁◯◯). We also performed subgroup analyses for the diagnostic test accuracy of visual score for the different tracers (PYP, DPD, HMDP) in patients suspected to have ATTR amyloidosis. DPD was found to have the highest sensitivity which was found to be 97% (95% CI 91.0-99.0) and a specificity of 95 (95% CI 86.0-98.0) (4 studies, n = 297 COE: Moderate ⨁⨁⨁◯). The sensitivity and specificity for PYP was 95% (95% CI 87.0-98.0) and 90% (95% CI 79.0-96.0) (7 studies, n = 377 COE: Moderate ⨁⨁⨁◯). 1 study reported on HMDP with a sensitivity and specificity of 79% (95% CI 49.0-95.0) and 100% (95% CI 59.0-100.0) (COE: Low ⨁⨁◯◯). Conclusion: Bone scintigraphy has a high sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of ATTR amyloidosis, particularly in patients without a monoclonal gammopathy.

Introduction: Although endomyocardial biopsy is the gold standard, echocardiography, and Cardiac Magnetic Resonance (CMR) play a pivotal role in the diagnosis of cardiac amyloidosis. In this systematic review, we aim to estimate the diagnostic test accuracy (DTA) of CMR and echocardiography for cardiac amyloidosis. Methods: As part of the American Society of Hematology guidelines on the diagnosis of Amyloidosis, we searched PubMed, Embase, and the Cochrane Central Register of Controlled Trials from inception till January 2024 for relevant studies. Two reviewers independently performed title and abstract screening and full-text article screening on LASER Al and extracted relevant data using a piloted Excel sheet. We performed statistical pooling using Stata 18.0 software. We evaluated risk of bias using Quality Assessment of Diagnostic Accuracy Studies-2 (QUADAS-2) and used the Grading of Recommendations Assessment, Development, and Evaluation (GRADE) approach to assess the certainty of the evidence. We report diagnostic test accuracy as sensitivity (95% confidence interval) and specificity (95% confidence interval). Results: After screening 29,237, we included 9 studies assessing DTA of late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) on cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) using an endomyocardial biopsy (EMB) as a reference test in patients with amyloidosis (light chain and ATTR). The majority of studies didn't report on the type of amyloidosis where only 2 out of 9 were in patients with light chain amyloidosis. The pooled estimates for sensitivity and specificity of LGE are 0.95 (0.88. 0.98), and 0.81 (0.60, 0.92), respectively. We did a sensitivity analysis and included only LGE suggestive for amyloidosis which didn't change sensitivity but led to an increase in specificity for amyloidosis to 0.87 (0.76, 0.94), respectively. The pooled estimates were based on moderate certainty in the evidence. For 2-dimensional echocardiography, we addressed DTA for different echocardiographic findings and we did not limit the reference to EMB. A panel of experts judged whether the reference was acceptable or not. Acceptable reference was EMB alone or a combination of extracardiac biopsy plus cardiac imaging (CMR or echocardiography) with or without positive cardiac biomarkers (troponin or BNP or NT-proBNP). Six studies (n=2063) addressed interventricular septum thickness (IVS), sensitivity was 0.77 (0.69, 0.84) and specificity was 0.71 (0.60, 0.81). 4 out of 6 studies used 12 mm as a cutoff while the other 2 studies used 13 mm as a cutoff. Only 2 studies (n=1667) assessed the DTA of posterior wall thickness (PWT), with sensitivity ranging from 0.76 to 1.00, and specificity ranging from 0.84 to 0.89. Six studies (n=438) addressed diastolic dysfunction (grade 2,3), with a sensitivity of 0.71 (0.40, 0.90), and specificity of 0.75 (0.64, 0.84). 7 studies (n=472) reported DTA of only diastolic dysfunction grade 3. When compared to diastolic dysfunction (grade 2,3, sensitivity decreases to 0.42 (0 28. 0.58) and specificity increases to 0.89 (0.83. 0.94). For E/A ratio, only 2 studies (n=127) were included. Sensitivity ranged from 0.45 to 0.65, and specificity ranged from 0.85 to 0.98. Four studies (n=1596) yielded a sensitivity of 0.86 (0.65, 0.95) and specificity of 0.76 (0.55, 0.89) of left ventricular global longitudinal strain (GLS). All except one used -17% as a cutoff for GLS. For apical sparing on GLS, pooled estimates from 8 studies (n=2253) led to a sensitivity of 0.72 (0.64, 0.78) and specificity of 0.78 (0.64, 0.88). There was a variation of cutoff across studies. The certainty of evidence for echocardiographic findings was low to moderate. Conclusion: CMR is a more accurate test with better performance compared to echocardiography.

Introduction: There are discrepant definitions of both iron deficiency and anemia in pregnancy. It is recognized that iron requirements increase during pregnancy, particularly in the third trimester, and that deficiencies should be corrected to avoid adverse maternal-fetal outcomes. While low dose iron supplementation is recommended for all pregnant persons (ACOG Bulletin 233), dosing through prenatal vitamins varies widely. Additionally, despite the epidemic of iron deficiency in reproductive-age females globally and availability of high-value biomarkers (e.g., ferritin), current guidelines only recommend screening for iron deficiency during pregnancy in the presence of anemia. As anemia is the terminal manifestation of iron deficiency and reference ranges vary by organization, these guidelines and practices warrant further investigation and discussion. Methods: Retrospective review and analysis of the electronic health record at Mayo Clinic (Rochester, MN) was performed for obstetric deliveries between June 2022 and May 2023. Iron deficiency was defined as a ferritin <50 mcg/L and anemia was defined as a hemoglobin <11 g/dL. Results: A total of 2,141 unique deliveries were identified. The median age at delivery was 31 years old (range: 15 - 45) with 82% identifying as white. Anemia was documented in 42% (n=904) of pregnancies at least once throughout gestation, with an increasing frequency of 2% (n=43) in the first trimester, 11% (n=230) in the second trimester, 17% (n=361) in the third trimester, and 38% (n=803) from admission for delivery through the peri-partum period. There were five documented pRBC transfusions prior to admission for delivery; however, from admission for delivery through the peri-partum period, there were a total of 102 documented pRBC transfusions. In total, 15% (n=318) of pregnancies were screened for iron deficiency through ferritin testing. Ferritin levels were measured 415 times with 23% (n=96) occurring between the last menstrual period and 12 weeks gestational age (WGA), 24% (n=100) occurring between 13-27 WGA, 40% (n=164) occurring between 28-40 WGA, and 13% (n=55) occurring post-partum. Iron deficiency was found in 70% (n=67), 79% (n=79), 80% (n=164), and 78% (n=43) of measured ferritin levels, respectively. Despite the paucity of screening, prescriptions for oral iron increased throughout gestation with supplementation in pregnancy for 8% (n=170) prior to 12 WGA, 14% (n=290) for those 13-27 WGA, and 23% (n=489) for those 28-40 WGA. Similarly, intravenous iron infusions increased throughout gestation with supplementation in pregnancy for 0.3% (n=7) prior to 12 WGA, 0.7% (n=16) for those 13-27 WGA, and 4% (n=95) for those 28-40 WGA. Prenatal vitamins were documented in over 90% of pregnancies throughout gestation, although the majority were non-prescription and contained variable amounts of elemental iron. Conclusions: Iron deficiency in pregnancy is underrecognized and undertreated. It follows that the accuracy of current reference ranges for anemia in pregnancy are suspect without rigorous verification of replete iron stores in the reference population. Given potential implications for blood product utilization and prenatal care, additional studies are warranted to better characterize iron deficiency in pregnancy as well as clinical sequelae for both mothers and infants. Simultaneously, discussions are needed around current guidelines and recommendations for both screening and treating iron deficiency in pregnancy. Providers, institutions, and professional societies should pursue pragmatic quality improvement initiatives and equitable healthcare delivery efforts to optimize care for this vulnerable patient population at high risk of iron deficiency.

Oncoprotein-driven human cancers exhibit replication stress (RS), leading to an increase in DNA double-strand breaks (DSB). These DSBs are repaired by one of the three main pathways - homologous recombination repair (HR), non-homologous end-joining (NHEJ), and microhomology-mediated end joining (MMEJ). Cyclin D1 (CCND1) is one of the most overexpressed oncoproteins and is universally overexpressed in mantle cell lymphoma (MCL). While CCND1 overexpression drives cells into the S-phase, its specific effects on RS and DSB repair pathways are poorly understood. Here, we investigated the impact of CCND1 overexpression on RS and DSB repair mechanisms in MCL. First, the expression level of CCND1 positively correlated with heightened RS, as indicated by elevated p-RPA-S33 and p-RPA S8 levels, and increased DNA damage, assessed by g-H2AX, especially in the mitotic phase, across diverse cell models, including MCL. Since CCND1-overexpressed cells proliferate rapidly, we hypothesized that some DNA repair pathways might be upregulated to meet the demand for repairing the excess RS-driven DSBs. Reporter assays demonstrated that the MMEJ pathway was specifically upregulated upon CCND1 overexpression, whereas no significant changes were observed in the HR and NHEJ pathways. Furthermore, CRISPR interference (CRISPRi)-mediated knockdown of CCND1 in MCL cells led to a significant reduction in MMEJ activity. This finding suggests the specificity of CCND1 in mediating the upregulation of the MMEJ pathway. Consistent with this, increased MMEJ activity, assessed via foci formation and immunoblotting of DNA polymerase theta expression (POLQ, encoded by POLQ gene), the primary polymerase for the MMEJ pathway, correlated with CCND1 overexpression, suggesting the crucial role of MMEJ in DSB repair processes under CCND1-overexpressed conditions. Sincethe MMEJ pathwayplays a pivotal role in repairing DSB during mitosis, we assessed the dependency of MCL cells on MMEJ-mediated DSB repair for cell survival. As expected, genetic deletion or pharmacological inhibition (ART558 and novobiocin) of POLQ in MCL cells led to increased RS and increased unrepaired DNA damage during mitosis, ultimately leading to chromosomal instability, mitotic catastrophe, and apoptosis. Additionally, the deficiency of POLQ in MCL cells resulted in increased levels of single-strand DNA, another critical biomarker for RS. Second, we found that ATM deficiency, the second most common genetic alteration after CCND1 overexpression in MCL, further increased the cellular dependence on MMEJ. Interestingly, the accumulation of unrepaired DNA damage during mitosis was notably increased in ATM-deficient CCND1-overexpressed cells. When POLQ was inhibited, a significant antitumor effect was evident in MCL cells, including ibrutinib-resistant MCL, both in vitro and in vivo, and this effect was enhanced by ATM deficiency. Further, simultaneous inhibition of both ATM (AZD0156) and POLQ was synthetic lethal in MCL cell lines and primary tumor cells from patients with MCL. Mechanistically, we observed the direct binding of CCND1 to the POLQ promoter and a corresponding upregulation of POLQ mRNA in CCND1-overexpressing cells. Consistently, a significant overexpression of POLQ mRNA was observed in primary MCL cells, compared to other non-Hodgkin lymphoma cells without CCND1 overexpression. Moreover, the positive correlation between POLQ and CCND1 expression was further validated using syngeneic B-lymphoma cells with and without CCND1 overexpression. Importantly, CRISPRi-mediated CCND1 knockdown reduced POLQ mRNA expression and the dependency of MCL cells on the MMEJ pathway for survival. In addition, ATM deficiency showed a further increase of endogenous POLQ expression and foci formation in cells with CCND1 overexpression, suggesting ATM negatively regulates the MMEJ pathway, especially in the CCND1 overexpressed background. In summary, CCND1 overexpression leads to a substantial increase in RS, intensifying the reliance on MMEJ-mediated mitotic DSB repair. Within MCL, POLQ is crucial in mitigating the adversities of CCND1-driven RS. Our data suggest that targeting the MMEJ pathway via POLQ inhibition, particularly in the presence of CCND1 overexpression and ATM deficiency, emerges as a promising therapeutic approach in oncoprotein-driven hematologic malignancies such as MCL.

Background: Rituximab, gemcitabine, and oxaliplatin (R-GemOx) is a commonly utilized chemoimmunotherapy regimen for relapsed or refractory (R/R) diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL), especially for patients ineligible for autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) or chimeric antigen receptor T cell therapy (CAR T). R-GemOx is used as a comparator arm in several active phase III clinical trials for R/R DLBCL, including the POLARGO (polatuzumab vedotion and R-GemOx), STARGLO (glofitamab and GemOx), SUNMO (mosunetuzumab and polatuzumab vedotin), LOTIS-5 (loncastuximab tesirine and rituximab), and EPCORE DLBCL-1 (epcoritamab) studies. However, real-world data are limited to understand the patterns of use and outcomes of R-GemOx in the US. Methods: We developed a retrospective multicenter US cohort (known as LEO CReWE) of patients with R/R DLBCL and other aggressive B-cell lymphomas at the eight US academic centers participating in the LEO Cohort Study (NCT02736357). Patients first diagnosed with DLBCL (including transformed and high-grade B-cell lymphoma) from 2007 - 2022 who received second line (2L) or later therapy for R/R DLBCL with R-GemOx were included. Baseline characteristics, treatment, and follow-up data were abstracted by chart review. Index line of therapy was defined as the first receipt of R-GemOx therapy in the 2L or later setting. Intent for CAR T and/or ASCT was evaluated at each line of therapy based on medical records at the time of treatment initiation. Subgroup analyses were pre-planned in groups of special interest, including those treated with R-GemOx without intent for ASCT or CAR T, those treated as a bridge to CAR T, and those aged 70 and older. Results: 183 patients with R/R DLBCL treated with R-GemOx were included. At time of initiation of R-GemOx, median age was 68 years (range 21-88), with 71 patients (39%) aged 70+ and 18 (10%) aged 80+. Many patients had high risk features including 13% with high grade B-cell lymphoma and 56% with IPI 3 or greater. 21% had an ECOG performance status of 2 or greater. Patients received a median of 2 lines of therapy prior to the index line of R-GemOx (range 1-7). 52% of patients did not achieve a complete response (CR) to first-line therapy, and 20% relapsed <12 months from an initial CR. In all patients receiving R-GemOx, the overall response rate (ORR) was 45% (29% CR). At a median follow-up of 39 months, median EFS was 2.3 months (95% CI: 1.8-3.2), with 12-month EFS of 21% and a 24-month EFS of 15%. Median OS was 13.5 months (95% CI: 9.6-18.1), with a 12-month OS of 52% and a 24-month OS of 38%. In patients treated without intent for ASCT or CAR T, ORR was 33% (18% CR). Median EFS was 2.0 months (95% CI: 1.6-2.5) with 12- and 24-month EFS of 14% and 9%, respectively. Median OS was 9.5 months (95% CI: 6.6-16.1) with 12- and 24-month OS of 45% and 29%, respectively. In patients receiving R-GemOx as bridging to ASCT or CAR T, ORR was 57% (35% CR). 35% received CAR T and 14% received ASCT, while the remainder did not receive the intended therapy as part of this line. Median EFS was 3.6 months (95% CI: 1.8-5.2) with 12- and 24-month EFS of 28% and 25%, respectively. Median OS was 17.4 months (95% CI: 13.4-NR); 12- and 24-month OS were 61% and 50%, respectively. In patients aged 70+, ORR was 53% (33% CR). Median EFS was 2.3 months (95% CI: 1.6-5.2), with 12- and 24-month EFS of 20% and 18%, respectively. Median OS was 13.9 months (95% CI: 8.6-30.2); 12- and 24-month OS were 57% and 39%, respectively. Conclusion: This study represents the largest reported cohort of patients treated with R-GemOx in US academic centers to date. The ORR of 45% and CR rate of 29% CR, as well as median EFS and OS of 2.3 and 13.5 months, respectively, are consistent with findings from previous phase II studies; these results highlight that responses to R-GemOx are not durable and the vast majority of patients require additional therapy. This study demonstrates real-world evidence of the efficacy of R-GemOx in a large cohort of patients with R/R DLBCL from the US over a long period, including both transplant-eligible and -ineligible patients, and patients treated in the CAR T era. These data aid in providing a benchmark for active clinical trials in the rapidly evolving landscape of R/R DLBCL therapies and allow potential comparison to a real-world cohort of patients with a broad range of clinical characteristics.

Background: TP53-mutated (TP53mut) myeloid neoplasms (MN) have particularly poor survival. Discrepancies in defining TP53mut MN have impact on diagnostic work up, therapeutic decisions, and clinical trial enrolment. Methods: MN cases harboring TP53mut (variant allele frequency, VAF ≥2%) were classified based on bone marrow (BM) and peripheral blood (PB) blast % using the 4th revision of the WHO classification (WHO-4R). Biallelic loss was defined as (i) ≥2 mutations each with VAF ≥2%; (ii) single TP53mut VAF ≥2% plus 17p loss detected on karyotype, FISH, or SNP; or (iii) single TP53mut VAF ≥50%, whereas monoallelic loss was defined as single TP53mut VAF <50% without 17p loss. Primary endpoint was overall survival (OS) from diagnosis. Conditional Inference Trees (CIT) analysis was used to determine the true effect of a predictor. Results: We identified 580 cases including WHO-4R defined acute myeloid leukemia (AML, BM/PB blasts ≥20%, n=219, 37.8%), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts-2 (EB-2, BM 10-19% or PB 5%-19%, n=92, 15.9%), MDS with excess blasts-1 (EB-1, BM 5-9% or PB 2-4%, n=75, 12.9%), and the remaining were MDS with low blasts (-LB, BM <5% and PB ≤1%, n=194, 33.4%). Of the 578 cases evaluable for allelic status, 437 (75.6%) and 141 (24.4%) had biallelic and monoallelic TP53 loss, respectively. Higher frequency of biallelic loss was observed with increasing blasts. 63.2%, 73.3%, 78% and 86.3% of cases with MDS-LB, MDS-EB1, MDS-EB2, and AML had bi-allelic TP53 loss (P<0.0001). In a multivariable analysis, WHO-4R categories, VAF ≥10%, and biallelic loss were independent predictors of poor survival. CIT analysis further stratified the cohort into 4 groups with distinct survival: (1) MDS-LB (n=194, 33.4%); (2) MDS-EB1/EB2 and AML with VAF <10% (n=38, 6.6%); (3) MDS-EB1/EB2 with VAF ≥10% (n=149, 25.7%); and (4) AML with VAF ≥10% (n=199, 34.3%). MDS-LB cases could be further stratified based on allelic status and complex karyotype (CK): OS was poor for cases with biallelic TP53 loss and monoallelic TP53mut with CK compared to monoallelic TP53mut without CK, who had the most favorable survival (12.7 vs. 13 vs. 34.8 months, P<0.0001).MDS-EB1/EB2/AML with VAF<10% could also be stratified by CK: MDS-EB1/EB2/AML with VAF<10% cases without CK had the favorable survival compared to their counterparts with CK and MDS-EB1/EB2 with VAF ≥10% cases (26.2 vs. 5.6 vs. 6.3 months, P=0.003).MDS-EB1/EB2 with VAF ≥10% was a homogenous subgroup: Biological characteristics including the proportion of cases with biallelic TP53 loss, CK (P>0.9), monosomal karyotype (MK, P>0.9), del 5q (P=0.6), del 7q (P=0.4), and del 17p (P=0.2) were comparable between MDS-EB1 and -EB2 with VAF ≥10%. Importantly, median OS of MDS-EB1 and EB2 with VAF ≥10% was comparable (9.6 vs. 7.2 months, P=0.12). OS in this group was comparable regardless of the blast %, allelic status, or presence of CK.AML with VAF ≥10% had extremely poor survival: Median OS was 3.9 months. Survival of AML was equally poor irrespective of the mono- or biallelic (3.6 vs. 3.9, P=0.89) and non-CK vs. CK (1.8 vs. 3.9 months, P=0.09). Combined, our model would acknowledge poor survival of 514 (89.1%) cases. In contrast, retrospective application of the 5th edition of the WHO classification (WHO-5) and International Consensus Classification (ICC) would classify only 211 (36.4%) and 468 (80.7%) cases as biallelic/multi-hit TP53mut MN, respectively. Finally, the Harrell's c-index of the proposed model, WHO-5, and ICC was 0.66, 0.571, and 0.617, respectively. Conclusion: We provide evidence for subsequent refinements in classifying MN harboring TP53mut. Our salient findings include: (i) acknowledgement of CK as ‘biallelic equivalent’ in MDS-LB; as well as EB1/EB2/AML with VAF 2 to <10% cases; and (ii) demonstration of poor survival of MDS-EB1 and -EB2 with VAF ≥10% regardless of the allelic status. In conclusion, our proposed model acknowledged poor survival of a higher proportion of cases as TP53mut MN compared to the current models with a higher c- index.

Introduction: Hyaline-vascular type unicentric Castleman disease (HV-UCD) is a classic variant of Castleman disease, characterized by localized lymph node hyperplasia. Due to its rarity, there have been few systematic reports summarizing its clinicopathological features globally. Also, its pathogenesis remains unelucidated. The present study aims to provide a detailed clinicopathological and transcriptomic analysis of HV-UCD to enhance the understanding of its underlying mechanisms at a molecular level. Methods: We conducted a clinicopathological analysis of 51 HV-UCD cases and performed whole transcriptome analysis on frozen lymph node specimens from four cases. Differentially expressed genes (DEGs) and Gene Ontology (GO) analyses were performed to identify significant pathways and biological processes involved in HV-UCD, with reactive lymphoid hyperplasia as control. Results: The mean age of HV-UCD patients was 42.8 years, with no significant gender differences. The most common sites involved were the abdominal cavity (n = 18, 35.3%), mediastinum (n = 11, 21.6%), and retroperitoneum (n = 9, 17.6%), with an average size of the lesions being 4.8 cm. Histologically, 33.3% of cases exhibited “dysplastic follicular dendritic cells (dFDCs)” characterized by multinucleation or large nuclei within and outside follicles, positive for follicular dendritic cells (FDC) markers. DEGs analysis compared to reactive lymphoid hyperplasia revealed significant upregulation of genes related to FDCs and angiogenesis. Notably, the placental growth factor (PGF), a proangiogenic factor and a member of the VEGF family, demonstrated significant overexpression. GO analysis identified significant enrichment of genes involved in angiogenesis, cell adhesion, tissue architecture, and humoral immunity. Discussion: This large cohort of HV-UCD cohort provides potentially novel clinicopathological insights. Gene expression analysis demonstrated increased expression of FDC-related genes, suggesting a pivotal role of FDCs in HV-UCD pathogenesis. The differences in the gene profiles related to angiogenesis may contribute to the distinct mechanisms and histological features of HV-UCD and iMCD-TAFRO, where HV-UCD is associated with hyalinization of vascular walls and iMCD-TAFRO is characterized by angiogenesis with endothelial cell swelling. Conclusion: The present results suggest the crucial role of FDCs in HV-UCD pathogenesis from the molecular features. Currently, there are no objective diagnostic markers for HV-UCD. Identifying these markers may lead to a clearer understanding of the disease pathophysiology and improve diagnostic accuracy for HV-UCD. Further investigation is warranted to verify the findings.

Background: Beside fibril-forming proteins, amyloid deposits contain other proteins which can influence organ toxicity, disease initiation and clearance. We investigated the association between the amyloid plaque proteomic signature of diagnostic renal biopsies from patients achieving deep and sustained hematologic remissions and renal organ response in AL amyloidosis. Methods: Retrospective study of newly diagnosed AL amyloidosis patients between 2010-2020. Patients were eligible if; (1) they had a baseline renal biopsy which had undergone laser micro-dissection and mass spectrometry, (2) were assessable for renal response [RenR, non-selective proteinuria ≥1g /24 hours, predominantly albumin], (3) were not on renal replacement therapy and did not experience renal progression within 3-months of diagnosis and (4) had RenR measurements, at least twice annually in the first year from treatment and annually thereafter. Patients who did not obtain a renal complete response (RenCR) required a hematologic very good partial response (VGPR) or better within 6 months of treatment initiation, sustained for a minimum of 6 months. Hematological and renal responses were graded according to consensus criteria. Overrepresentation analyses of differentially expressed proteins were performed using the WebGestalt 2019 and the reactome pathway database. A false detection rate corrected p value <0.05 was used to identify significantly overrepresented proteins and pathways. Results: We defined two organ response categories, to capture the extreme ends of the spectrum: renal suboptimal responders (n=24), patients for whom the best renal response was ≤partial response (RenPR), and renal complete responders (n=29), patients who obtained a RenCR at best response. Overall, the median follow-up was 6.7 years (IQR: 5.4-9.2), 6.6 years (IQR: 5.4-8.1) for complete responders, and 8.4 years (IQR: 6.1-11.3) for suboptimal responders. Between renal suboptimal responders and complete responders there was no significant difference in median age (63 vs 63 years, p=0.7), lambda light chain isotype (66% vs 79%, p=0.3), first-line therapy received and renal stage (Stage III: 14% vs 8%, p=0.9). The median time to RenCR was 52-months (IQR: 31-63). Protein pathways over-represented in renal complete responders included 14-3-3 proteins (YWHAG, YWHAH, YWHAQ, YWHAZ), early components of the complement cascade and complement regulatory proteins (C3, C4A, C4B, C8A, complement factor H), keratins, cytoskeletal proteins (tubulin, actin, filamen) and collagen IV. Protein pathways over-represented in renal suboptimal responders included terminal/effector components of the complement cascade (C5, C6, C8B, C9), amyloid signature proteins (ApoA1 and E, vitronectin, clusterin), proteoglycans (heparan sulfate proteoglycan), transgelin and metallopeptidase inhibitor 3. Proteins with the highest-fold increase in renal complete responders included serine protease inhibitor (SERPINA3) and F-box and leucine rich repeat protein (FBXL6), 9.0 x 106 & 7.7-fold, respectively. Proteins with the highest-fold increase in renal suboptimal responders included complement 6 and 8B, 3.5 & 3.6-fold, respectively. Conclusion: This is the first study to identify proteomic determinants of organ response in AL amyloidosis. Molecular chaperones involved in protein aggregate homeostasis, such as the 14-3-3 proteins are upregulated in renal complete responders, similar to what we have shown in our prior work. This suggests that organ responders may have a more favorable microenvironment which “primes” them for organ response after the amyloidogenic light chain has been cleared from the circulation. Renal suboptimal responders (≤RenPR) have elevated levels of terminal complement proteins including membrane attack complex proteins and reduced levels of early components or complement regulatory proteins, which may be responsible for reno-toxic and reno-protective effects, respectively.

Introduction: Light chain (AL) amyloidosis is a clonal plasma cell disorder characterized by tissue deposition of misfolded immunoglobulin light chains in the form of amyloid, leading to organ dysfunction. Halting the production of the amyloidogenic free light chains by achieving a deep hematologic response (HemR) is key to improving organ function, however, variation in organ responses exists. In this work, we investigated variables associated with liver response (LivR) in a large cohort of patients with AL amyloidosis. Methods: Retrospective study of newly diagnosed AL amyloidosis patients with liver involvement seen at Mayo Clinic within 90 days of diagnosis between January 2000 and December 2021. Patients were eligible if they (1) had liver involvement, defined as a baseline alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ≥ 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) and (2) had LivR measurements at least twice annually in the first year from treatment and annually afterward. LivR was defined as a >50% reduction in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) from baseline value or normalization of ALP. LivR was recorded at 6, 12, and 24 months from treatment initiation and at the best LivR achieved. Patients who died prior to landmark assessment were considered non-responders at subsequent milestone assessments. Covariates associated with LivR were identified by univariate and multivariable logistic regression analyses and a proportional subdistribution hazard (Fine-Gray) model for competing risk (treating death as a competing event). Multivariable logistic regression models for LivR were created using best subset selection, with calculation of odds ratio (OR) and 95% confidence interval (CI). Results: A total of 130 patients were included, with a median age of 60 years (IQR 53-66), male predominance (69%), and a median follow-up of 8.8 years. Sixty percent of patients had lambda isotype, the median ALP was 368 IU/mL (IQR 279-589), with 48% of patients having ALP ≥3 fold the upper limit of normal (ULN). Median bilirubin was 0.7 mg/dL (IQR 0.5-1.1). Forty-three percent of patients received front-line autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT) with or without prior induction therapy, and 5% received daratumumab-based therapy as their front-line treatment. Liver response rate increased with time, with 36 patients (28%) achieving a LivR at 6 months, 47 (36%) at 12 months, 63 (48%) at 24 months, and 94 (72%) at best response. The median time to liver response was 14 months (7.22-32.67). At the 24-month landmark, age <60 years, ALP ≥3 fold ULN, and front-line ASCT were significantly associated with achieving a LivR on univariate logistic regression. On univariate logistic regression at best liver response, age <60 years, ALP ≥3 fold the ULN, kappa isotype, ≥HemVGPR within 6 months, and front-line ASCT were significantly associated with obtaining a LivR. On multivariable logistic regression, at 24 months, ALP ≥3 folds of ULN (OR=2.9, 95% CI 1.4-6.3, P=0.004) was significantly associated with an increased likelihood of LivR. Achieving ≥HemVGPR and front-line ASCT were also associated with increased LivR likelihood, although not statistically significant (p=0.094, p=0.078, respectively). At best liver response, achieving ≥HemVGPR within 6 months (OR=5.2, 95% CI 1.9-14.8), kappa isotype (OR=3.2, 95% CI 1.1-10.0), ALP ≥3 folds of ULN (OR=3.3, 95% CI 1.3-9.9), and front-line ASCT (OR=5.3, 95% CI 1.9-16.7) were factors significantly associated with LivR. The Fine-Gray model demonstrated kappa isotype (HR=1.7), baseline ALP ≥3 folds of ULN (HR=2.1), ≥HemVGPR within 6 months (HR=1.9), and age <60 years at diagnosis (HR=1.9) to be positively associated with achieving LivR (P<0.05). Conclusions: In this large cohort of liver AL amyloidosis, LivR was achieved in 72% of patients, and amongst responders, the median time to response was 14 months from therapy initiation. Predictors of LivR included kappa isotype, deep hematological response in the first 6 months of initial therapy, ASCT usage, and higher baseline ALP levels. These findings better inform clinicians on the likelihood of achievement of liver response and may enable ways to improve its achievement.

Introduction Despite improvements in outcomes with triplet and quadruplet combination regimens in front-line (1L) multiple myeloma (MM) treatment (Tx), pts with disease that relapses early after 1L Tx or responds inadequately to 1L autologous stem cell transplantation (ASCT) have poor prognosis. Therefore, Txs with novel mechanisms of action are needed. Ide-cel, a BCMA-directed CAR T cell therapy, resulted in deep and durable responses in pts with functional high-risk MM. KarMMa-2 (NCT03601078) is a phase 2, multicenter, multicohort trial of ide-cel: cohort 2a includes pts who progressed ≤ 18 mo of starting 1L therapy with ASCT, cohort 2b includes pts who progressed ≤ 18 mo of starting 1L therapy without ASCT, and cohort 2c includes pts who achieved less than very good partial response ~100 d after 1L ASCT. With a median follow-up of 21.5, 30.1, and 39.4 mo, respectively, median PFS (95% CI) for cohorts 2a, 2b, and 2c was 11.4 mo (5.6-19.6), not reached (NR; 12.2-NR), and NR (38.0-NR). Previous correlative analyses of ide-cel in relapsed and refractory MM have shown that pts with lower pre-Tx tumor burden and lower pre-Tx indicators of basal inflammation had better responses. This cross-cohort analysis evaluated tumor burden, baseline inflammatory status, and T-cell quality differences to develop hypotheses for biologic features underpinning robust PFS previously observed with ide-cel. Methods Levels of soluble BCMA (sBCMA) and 25 exploratory cytokines at infusion and post-Tx were measured by immunoassay. Apheresis and drug product material were characterized by high-parameter flow cytometry and immunoassay. Pharmacokinetics (PK) were evaluated by droplet digital polymerase chain reaction. These analyses were exploratory and post hoc in nature; statistical tests were utilized to identify relationships of interest to develop working hypotheses of the underlying biology. Results Baseline tumor burden, evaluated by median sBCMA (interquartile range [IQR]), was highest in cohort 2b at 156 ng/mL (83-300) compared with 2a at 91 ng/mL (41-169) and 2c at 27 ng/mL (19-48). Pts in cohort 2b had the lowest baseline levels of a subset of inflammatory cytokines, including interferon [IFN]-γ and interleukin-4. Phenotypic data from apheresis material showed that, among the 3 cohorts, pts in cohort 2b also had the lowest amount of effector memory T cells positive for CD45RA (TEMRA; terminally differentiated T cells) and CD57+ T cells (senescent T cells), and the highest amount of CCR7+CD27+ T cells (early memory T cells). Cohorts 2a and 2c had similar phenotypic profiles in the apheresis material. Median time from ASCT to infusion (IQR) was 12.1 mo (9.7-14.3) in cohort 2a and 5.8 mo (5.2-6.2) in cohort 2c. Pts in cohort 2b also had a higher CD4:CD8 ratio in the apheresis material vs the other 2 cohorts. Profiling the drug products from pts in cohort 2b showed higher CAR+ T cell frequency and CAR-specific IFN-γ, and tumor necrosis factor-α and granzyme secretion upon stimulation vs 2a and 2c, with a consistent and comparable potency profile among all cohorts. While sBCMA level at infusion was lower in cohort 2c vs 2a, the similarity in inflammatory state and T-cell quality may reflect impacts from recent melphalan use before ASCT and bone marrow recovery after ASCT, as most pts in both cohorts were < 18 mo from ASCT. Robust cell expansion was observed across cohorts. Conclusions The encouraging median PFS outcome previously observed in cohort 2b relative to existing therapies in this high-risk pt population may be driven by the higher T-cell quality and better inflammatory state pre-Tx despite high baseline tumor burden (sBCMA). Pts in cohorts 2c and 2a had comparatively less optimal baseline immune status vs cohort 2b. The promising PFS observed in cohort 2c may be reflective of sufficient T-cell quality to drive optimal responses in the context of relatively low tumor burden at study entry. The median PFS in cohort 2a may reflect the combination of high tumor burden and less optimal baseline inflammatory status. These observations suggest a working model in which ide-cel may demonstrate robust PFS in pts with early-line, high-risk MM and high tumor burden with good baseline immune status and T-cell quality, and in pts with less favorable baseline immune status and T-cell quality when tumor burden is relatively low and stable.