Citations

ABSTRACTImmune thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (iTTP) is characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and microvascular occlusion secondary to acquired ADAMTS13 deficiency. Contemporary data regarding iTTP treatment practices in the US, including the use of caplacizumab, are lacking. We aimed to characterize the demographics and therapies, including medications and apheresis practices, in patients with iTTP in the US. We retrospectively analyzed iTTP cases at 15 sites in the US that provide comprehensive care for patients with iTTP. The time‐period assessed was from January 1, 2017 to December 31, 2021. Our primary objective was to analyze data by iTTP episode, inclusive of initial episodes and relapses. A total of 390 iTTP episodes were reported for 280 unique individuals (187 females, 93 males). Thirty‐day mortality was 3.7% (14/374), and 6‐month mortality was 7.4% (27/367). TPE details were reported for 343 episodes, among which 261 underwent at least one procedure (median 6, IQR 3–11). Among the 261 episodes with at least one therapeutic plasma exchange (TPE) performed, 82.0% (214/261) used only plasma. Caplacizumab was used either alone or in combination with other agents in 43 (11.0%) episodes. Management strategies for iTTP remain varied across centers in the US, with a variety of combinations for TPE replacement fluids and therapeutic agents, as well as limited use of caplacizumab. Further research and standardization of treatment regimens may further reduce mortality in this condition.

Recurrent coarctation of the aorta (reCoA) can be treated via redo surgical or endovascular means with the latter option providing a shorter hospitalization, expedient recovery, and a lower incidence of early morbidity and mortality. A common barrier to endovascular repair with standard thoracic endografts is the proximity of the left subclavian artery (LSA) to the reCoA which has previously necessitated adjunctive open revascularization or additional off-label endovascular techniques. This case describes percutaneous endovascular repair of postsurgical reCoA and a poststenotic descending thoracic aortic aneurysm with an off-the-shelf thoracic branched endograft incorporating the LSA with successful resolution of aortic pressure gradient and complete aneurysm exclusion. Clinical Impact This case highlights the use of a commercially available, off-the-shelf endograft to treat thoracic aortic coarctation and associated aortic aneurysm. The paper highlights unique technical points for use of the Gore Thoracic Branch Endoprosthesis in the off-label treatment of thoracic aortic coarctation which is an ideal endovascular option for lesions in proximity to the left subclavian artery.

ImportanceCutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (CSCC) risk stratification is central to management, and physicians rely on tumor staging systems to estimate risk. The Brigham and Women’s Hospital (BWH) T staging system predicts risk based on 4 tumor risk factors (RFs). However, stage is not precisely associated with the number of RFs, as BWH stage T2b includes CSCCs with 2 and 3 RFs.ObjectiveTo determine how RF number is associated with the risk of recurrence, metastasis, and disease-related death.Design, Setting, and ParticipantsThis retrospective multination cohort study of CSCCs diagnosed between October 1, 1991, and July 19, 2023, was conducted at 12 centers in the US (10), Spain (1), and Brazil (1). Invasive CSCCs with confirmed negative margins longer than 14 days were included. Tumors were excluded if they were metastatic at presentation or received adjuvant therapy. Data were analyzed from October 2023 to August 2024.Interventions or ExposuresCSCCs were stratified by the number of the following RFs (0, 1, 2, 3, or 4): a diameter of 2 cm or larger, poorly differentiated histology, tumor extension beyond subcutaneous fat, and large caliber nerve invasion.Main Outcomes and MeasuresFive-year cumulative incidences of local recurrence, nodal metastasis, distant metastasis, and disease-specific death.ResultsA total of 16 844 CSCCs were included (5978 female individuals [35.5%]; median [IQR] age, 73.9 [65.7-81.8] years), with 0 (12 657 [75.1%]), 1 (2892 [17.2%]), 2 (1015 [6.0%]), 3 ( 225 [1.3%]) or 4 (55 [0.3%]) RFs. Median (IQ) follow up time was 33.6 (14.5-60.3) months. For local recurrence, the risk increased as the number of RF increased from 0 (1.7%; 95% CI, 1.5%-2.0%) to 1 (5.0%; 95% CI, 4.1%-5.9%) to 2 (8.8%; 95% CI, 7.0%-11.0%) to 3 (16.0%; 95% CI, 11.0%-22.0%) to 4 (33.0%; 95% CI, 19.0%-47.0%; P < .001 for between-group differences). This increase was also observed for nodal metastasis (0.6% [95% CI, 0.4%-0.7%] vs 3.6% [95% CI, 2.9%-4.4%] vs 11.0% [95% CI, 9.2%-13.0%] vs 20.0% [95% CI, 15.0%-26.0%] vs 28.0% [95% CI, 15.0%-42.0%], respectively; P < .001), distant metastasis (0.2% [95% CI, 0.1%-0.3%] vs 1.1% [95% CI, 0.7%-1.6%] vs 2.3% [95% CI, 1.4%-3.4%] vs 7.9% [95% CI, 4.6%-12.0%] vs 8.4% [95% CI, 2.6%-19.0%], respectively; P < .001), and disease-specific death (0.3% [95% CI, 0.2%-0.4%] vs 1.9% [95% CI, 1.4%-2.7%] vs 5.4% [95% CI, 4.0%-7.0%] vs 11.0% [95% CI, 6.7%-16.0%] vs 25% [95% CI, 12%-39%], respectively; P < .001). CSCCs with 3 RFs had higher cumulative incidences of local recurrence (1.6-fold), nodal metastasis (1.9-fold), distant metastasis (4.3-fold), and disease-specific death (1.9-fold) compared with those with 2 RFs.Conclusions and RelevanceThe results of this cohort study suggest that the number of RFs is an indicator of risk, and among BWH T2b tumors, those with 3 RFs represent a higher risk subset.

Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) is the most prevalent and aggressive subtype of non-Hodgkin lymphoma comprising 30% to 40% of cases. While DLBCL frequently arises in the lymph nodes, up to 40% of cases originate in extranodal tissues. Primary splenic DLBCL is extremely rare comprising only ~1% of DLBCL cases and can be complicated by rare entities including gastrosplenic fistula (GSF). In contrast to DLBCL, polycythemia vera (PV) is a myeloproliferative malignancy. Polycythemia vera can transform into other hematologic malignancies including post-polycythemia myelofibrosis, but associations with DLBCL are uncommon. We present the first case of PV with concomitant primary splenic DLBCL complicated by GSF. While the majority of splenic lesions are benign, they have a broad differential diagnosis including malignant etiologies. Cystic or solid morphology, the number of lesions, and vascularity on imaging heavily guide further management. Due to concern for imminent massive upper gastrointestinal bleeding in the setting of GSF, our patient was diagnosed and managed with prompt splenectomy and gastrectomy. Percutaneous splenic biopsy is also a safe and effective diagnostic modality, but was deferred in our case given increased bleeding risk with PV. In conclusion, primary splenic lymphoma should be in the differential for a splenic mass regardless of whether the patient has a prior hematologic malignancy, and management should be prompt especially if complicated by a GSF.

Abstract Among 64 patients with Erdheim-Chester disease treated with a BRAF inhibitor (median follow-up 4 years), we found high response rates (85%) but frequent discontinuations (61%), primarily because of adverse events. Additionally, patients experienced poor health-related quality of life and high symptom burden.

Abstract Food allergy can be life threatening and often develops early in life, especially in infants and children with atopic dermatitis. Food allergy is induced in neonatal mice with skin barrier mutations (Flaky Tail, FT+/− mice with filaggrin and mattrin gene mutations) by epicutaneous sensitization with co-exposures to the food allergen peanut extract (PNE), the environmental allergen Alternaria alternata (Alt), and detergent (4% SDS); oral PNE-challenge induces anaphylaxis. Sensitization in these neonates also induces eosinophil infiltration into the skin and elevates skin expression of eotaxins (CCL11 and CCL24). However, roles for eosinophils in food allergy are not known. In this study, the iPhil+/− FT+/− pups, which have an inducible eosinophil-deficiency upon injection of diphtheria toxin (DTX), were sensitized and then received PNE by gavage to assess anaphylaxis. DTX depletion of eosinophils, during sensitization and oral PNE-challenge, blocked the recruitment and activation of mast cells, blocked the Alt+PNE-induced increase in plasma IL-33 and OSM, attenuated serum PNE-specific IgE/IgG1/IgG2b, and blocked oral-PNE-induced anaphylaxis. Anti-IL-5 depletion of eosinophils during sensitization/challenge also blocked anaphylaxis. When eosinophils were depleted during allergen-skin-sensitization and restored before oral PNE-challenge, anaphylaxis was blocked. In contrast, when eosinophils were present during allergen-skin-sensitization but then depleted during oral PNE-challenge, anaphylaxis was not blocked. Together, these data indicate that although eosinophils are not necessary during oral food allergen-induced anaphylaxis, eosinophils have a critical role during the development of food allergy early in life by regulating the sensitization-induced increase in mast cell numbers and food allergen-specific IgE.