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Abstract Background: Platelet-activating anti-PF4 antibodies that cause thrombocytopenia and thrombosis are implicated in Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and, more recently, in a newly recognized entity, vaccine-induced immune thrombotic thrombocytopenia (VITT). Current frontline PF4-Polyanion ELISAs utilize simple techniques but are highly non-specific. Functional gold-standard assays such as the serotonin-release assay (SRA) and PF4-dependent P-selectin expression assay (PEA) have limited availability due to technical complexity and the requirement for freshly-drawn normal donor platelets which results in significant delays in diagnosis. Thus, there is an unmet need for near-patient, functional assays for HIT/VITT diagnosis. Aim: To develop a highly sensitive and specific functional assay to detect platelet-activating antibodies associated with HIT and VITT using long-term stored platelets. The assay should be technically simple, avoiding current functional HIT testing endpoints such as aggregometry, radioactivity measurement or flow cytometry. Methods: Platelets were subjected to controlled-rate freezing in a trehalose-based buffer. Cryopreserved platelets were then thawed after variable storage periods, incubated with platelet factor 4 (PF4), and sera from HIT or VITT suspected patients. Thrombospondin-1 (TSP1), a protein highly expressed in platelet α-granules, was quantified from activated platelet supernatants in an ELISA-based assay as a measure of platelet activation. Results: In initial studies, p-selectin expression was induced by platelet-activating HIT antibodies using cryopreserved platelets and the TSP1-release assay (TRA) detected HIT antibody-mediated PF4-dependent cryopreserved platelet activation across 20 different platelet lots (data not shown). A representative study using platelets stored for 11 months is shown in Figure 1A. A cohort of thirty-six HIT-suspected patient sera, half with PF4-dependent platelet-activating antibodies (PEA+) and without (PEA-), were used to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of the TRA (Figure 1B). All 18 PEA+ samples activated platelets strongly with a mean TSP1 concentration of 147 µg/mL measured in the supernatant compared to a mean of 43 µg/mL obtained with non-activating samples. TSP1 release in a subgroup of 7 PEA+/SRA+/ELISA+ and 4 PEA-/SRA-/ELISA+ samples that were matched for ELISA Optical Density was examined (Figure 1C). Results demonstrated that even strong ELISA+ samples that were non-activating (PEA-/SRA-) did not induce platelet activation in the TRA, confirming high specificity of the assay. The TRA was tested for its ability to detect platelet-activating antibodies in four patients who developed VITT after the Janssen vaccine (Ad26.COV2.S). All samples induced high levels of TSP1 release from cryopreserved platelets (Figure 1D). Conclusions: Our results demonstrate that cryopreserved platelets stored for several months are viable and capable of degranulation upon activation. Further, we demonstrate that measurement of TSP-1 released from cryopreserved, PF4-treated platelets is highly accurate for detecting platelet-activating HIT and VITT anti-PF4 antibodies. Specificity and sensitivity were both 100% even with samples that were strongly false-positive in the HIT ELISA. Coupling cryopreserved platelet activation to a simple ELISA endpoint, as demonstrated here, precludes the need for fresh platelets and complex testing techniques. Thus, the TRA has the potential to transform the diagnostic testing paradigm in HIT and VITT by making near-patient in-hospital functional testing available for rapid and accurate diagnosis. Figure Legend: Figure 1. TSP-1 quantification of (A) 3 HIT patient samples (closed circles) relative to 3 normal control samples (open circles) after 11-months of frozen platelet storage. (B) Thirty-six HIT-suspected patient samples: 18 PEA+ samples (closed circles), and 18 PEA- samples (open squares). Data are compared using two-tailed, unpaired Student's t test. **** P<0.0001. (C) Eleven high optical density matched HIT ELISA patient sera: 7 PEA+/SRA+ samples (closed circles) and 4 PEA-/SRA- samples (open squares). (D) TSP-1 quantification of VITT patient sera. NC-normal control. Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Pruthi: Instrumentation Laboratory: Honoraria; HEMA Biologics: Honoraria; Bayer Healthcare AG: Honoraria; Genentech: Honoraria; CSL Behring: Honoraria; Merck: Honoraria. Padmanabhan: Veralox Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees.

Abstract Background: Myelofibrosis (MF) is characterized by progressive bone marrow (BM) fibrosis resulting from aberrant megakaryopoiesis and expression of pro-inflammatory cytokines. These processes, heavily influenced by bromodomain and extraterminal domain (BET) protein-mediated gene regulation, lead to myeloproliferation and cytopenias. There is a high unmet need for a treatment that can potentially delay or reverse BM fibrosis in patients (pts) with MF. Pelabresib (CPI-0610) is a potent, first-in-class, selective, oral small-molecule BET inhibitor, which is able to modify the expression of genes involved in nuclear factor kappa B (NFκB) signaling in pts with MF. Pelabresib is currently being investigated as a monotherapy and in combination with the JAK inhibitor (JAKi) ruxolitinib (RUX), in the ongoing MANIFEST Phase 2 study (NCT02158858). Methods: In arm 1 of MANIFEST, pelabresib is administered as monotherapy to pts with MF who are intolerant/refractory to, or ineligible for RUX; in arm 2, as an 'add-on' to RUX in pts with MF who have suboptimal/lost response; and in arm 3 as combination therapy with RUX in JAKi treatment-naïve pts with MF. To evaluate the effects of pelabresib on BM biology, analyses were conducted using BM biopsy samples obtained pre-treatment and at 24 weeks post-treatment during the MANIFEST trial. Central pathology review of reticulin staining was conducted to evaluate BM fibrosis (BMF) grading and immunohistochemistry staining for changes in erythroids (ERY) and megakaryocytes (MK), respectively. Independent digital images of stained BM slides were also evaluated with a semi-quantitative cell-specific detection algorithm for reticulin density, percentage CD71+ ERY, mean number of CD61+ MK and mean distance between nuclei for CD61+ MK. Results: Exploratory analyses across the three treatment arms showed BM improvements after 24 weeks of treatment. Paired comparison by digital analysis of baseline and 24-week treatment BM biopsies from 29 pts showed reduction (range 67%-15.5%) in reticulin intersections per field in 45% (13/29) pts. Furthermore, digital analysis of CD71+ ERY and CD61+ MK from paired biopsies showed increased ERY progenitors in 50% (16/32) pts, decreased MK density in 57% (15/26) pts and decreased MK clustering in 46% (12/26) pts at 24 weeks. Decreased MK clustering correlated with decreased density of CD61+ MK in 75% pts (9/12). Correlative analysis between observed clinical responses and bone marrow improvements are ongoing and will be available for presentation at the conference. We previously reported (Talpaz M, et al. ASH 2020; Abstract 2163) that in pts with MF, pelabresib can reduce spleen volume, improve symptoms, improve bone marrow fibrosis, demonstrate increase in hemoglobin levels, and reduce transfusion burden. Updated 24-week data reflecting a higher number of evaluable pts and new long-term data at 48 weeks across the MANIFEST trial, will be presented. Conclusions: Treatment with pelabresib as monotherapy or in combination with RUX, in both RUX treatment-naïve and -experienced pts with MF, resulted in increased ERY progenitors, decreased MK density and reduction of BM fibrosis, as assessed by digital pathology. These data suggest possible disease-modifying potential for pelabresib by improving BM histology and function, leading to potential clinical benefits. Disclosures Verstovsek: Roche: Research Funding; Promedior: Research Funding; Blueprint Medicines Corp: Research Funding; Incyte Corporation: Consultancy, Research Funding; Protagonist Therapeutics: Research Funding; Genentech: Research Funding; CTI BioPharma: Research Funding; Celgene: Consultancy, Research Funding; Gilead: Research Funding; Ital Pharma: Research Funding; PharmaEssentia: Research Funding; NS Pharma: Research Funding; AstraZeneca: Research Funding; Novartis: Consultancy, Research Funding; Sierra Oncology: Consultancy, Research Funding; Constellation: Consultancy; Pragmatist: Consultancy. Salama: Mayo Clinic: Current Employment, Other: Mayo Clinic had the contractual work for the central pathology review for this study and I was one of the reviewing pathologists; Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Mascarenhas: AbbVie: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Kartos: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Celgene/BMS: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Constellation: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Merck: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Geron: Consultancy, Research Funding; Prelude: Consultancy; Gilead: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; PharmaEssentia: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Galecto: Consultancy; Promedior: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Merus: Research Funding; Forbius: Research Funding; CTI Biopharm: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Genentech/Roche: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Roche: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Incyte: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding; Sierra Oncology: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Geron: Consultancy; Novartis: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding. Talpaz: Celgene: Consultancy; Imago: Consultancy; Takeda: Other: Grant/research support ; Bristol Myers Squibb: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Constellation: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Novartis: Consultancy, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding. Mesa: La Jolla Pharma: Consultancy; Samus: Research Funding; Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Consultancy, Research Funding; Pharma: Consultancy; CTI: Research Funding; Abbvie: Research Funding; CTI: Research Funding; Genentech: Research Funding; Gilead: Research Funding; Promedior: Research Funding; Novartis: Consultancy; Celgene: Research Funding; Incyte Corporation: Consultancy, Research Funding; Sierra Oncology: Consultancy, Research Funding; AOP: Consultancy. Vannucchi: Incyte: Honoraria, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; BMS: Honoraria, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; AbbVie: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Novartis: Honoraria, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Rampal: Incyte: Consultancy, Research Funding; Pharmaessentia: Consultancy; Blueprint: Consultancy; Disc Medicine: Consultancy; Stemline: Consultancy, Research Funding; BMS/Celgene: Consultancy; Novartis: Consultancy; Sierra Oncology: Consultancy; CTI: Consultancy; Abbvie: Consultancy; Jazz Pharmaceuticals: Consultancy; Constellation: Research Funding; Memorial Sloan Kettering: Current Employment; Kartos: Consultancy. Oh: Abbvie: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Blueprint Medicines: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Celgene Bristol Myers Squibb: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Constellation: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; CTI Biopharma: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Disc Medicine: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Geron: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Incyte: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Kartos Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; PharamaEssentia: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Sierra Oncology: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Taverna: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Cui: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Zavidij: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Chen: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Colak: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Efuni: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Keller: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Trojer: Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Current Employment. Harrison: Galacteo: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Incyte Corporation: Speakers Bureau; Constellation Pharmaceuticals: Research Funding; Sierra Oncology: Honoraria; CTI BioPharma: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Celgene: Honoraria, Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding, Speakers Bureau; Geron: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Janssen: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Roche: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Novartis: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Research Funding, Speakers Bureau; BMS: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Keros: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; AOP Orphan Pharmaceuticals: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Gilead Sciences: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Promedior: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Shire: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau; Abbvie: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees, Speakers Bureau.

Abstract Background: Heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a rare immune mediated complication that is triggered in a subset of patients temporal to therapeutic heparin exposure. Laboratory testing is based on screening for the presence of serum anti-PF4 antibodies using sensitive solid-phase immunoassays. If antibodies are detected, functional testing to demonstrate the platelet activating properties and heparin dependence of these immune complexes is then performed. Previous studies have reported possible clinical utility in identifying non heparin dependent platelet activating antibodies using a buffer control with zero heparin in the serotonin release functional assay (SRA). These reports suggested a correlation between reactivity in the zero heparin buffer control and pathogenicity of HIT antibodies which may define a subtype of HIT, referred to as autoimmune HIT. We aimed to investigate the utility of zero heparin buffer control as a part of an inhouse validation study of a mass spectrometry-coupled SRA (Mayo-SRA). Methods: Three hundred archived serum samples were tested using anti-PF4 IgG antibody enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA; Immucor Diagnostics, GA, USA). SRA was preformed on all samples using Mayo-SRA and reference 14C SRA methods. Zero heparin control buffer was included in the Mayo-SRA assay. Serotonin release >20% in the low dose heparin (0.1U/mL, LDH) and ELISA optical density (OD) >0.4 were considered positive. Drug interference studies were performed by spiking known SRA-positive samples with increasing concentrations of unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) or fondaparinux in the LDH and zero heparin SRA. The clinical 4T score was calculated retrospectively calculated for all patients. Results: Of the 300 tested samples, 57 were anti-PF4 ELISA positive. 33 of the 57 samples were positive using the reference 14C SRA method. Whereas 43 samples were positive by Mayo-SRA assay. Three additional samples were positive by Mayo-SRA, but negative by both screening anti-PF4 ELISA and the reference SRA method (Fig- 1A). Lastly, 13 samples were anti-PF4 ELISA positive, but SRA negative by both methods in comparison. Interestingly, 44 of 46 (95%) samples interpreted positive by LDH were also interpreted positive (serotonin release >20%) under zero heparin conditions. These included the 3 samples that were positive by Mayo-SRA but negative by both screening anti-PF4 ELISA and the reference SRA. The overall % serotonin release using zero heparin control was significantly lower (P= 0.003, paired Student T-test) compared to LDH (Fig-1B). In addition, zero heparin followed a similar pattern as LDH, with highest levels at ELISA OD units >2 (Fig-1C). Strikingly, drug interference studies showed artifactual serotonin release in the zero heparin reaction, which was not detected in the absence of spiked drugs. For UFH, serotonin release in zero heparin control occurred at very low spiked concentrations, ≥0.063 U/mL. LMWH and fondaparinux spiking experiments also displayed similar zero heparin serotonin release patterns (Fig-1D). Of note, none of these interferences were detected in UFH spiked SRA-negative samples (data not shown). Conclusion: Contrary to prior results suggesting that less than 50% of LDH SRA positive samples are also positive in the zero heparin SRA, our results show high zero heparin SRA positivity rate of >95%. Zero heparin SRA showed a pattern with highest levels at ELISA OD units >2 suggesting that reactivity in this condition is a function of antibody strength rather than a qualitative difference (i.e. "autoimmune" HIT antibodies vs "non-autoimmune" HIT antibodies). In addition, contamination of patient sera with small amounts of remnant heparin can significantly impact platelet activation in the zero heparin SRA test. Thus, zero heparin SRA positive results may be artifactual and represent residual heparin contained in the patient sample. Figure legend: Fig-1A. Scatter plots of SRA positive samples grouped by 4T scores. Red dots are Mayo-SRA only positive samples. Fig-1B and Fig-1C. Scatter plots of % serotonin release of Mayo-SRA positive samples at LDH (circles) vs. zero heparin buffers (squares), and grouped by ELISA OD values, respectively. Fig-1D. % Serotonin release of known SRA-positive samples spiked with increasing concentrations of UFH, LMWH, or fondaparinux at LDH (white) or zero heparin buffers (red). Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Pruthi: CSL Behring: Honoraria; Genentech: Honoraria; Bayer Healthcare AG: Honoraria; HEMA Biologics: Honoraria; Instrumentation Laboratory: Honoraria; Merck: Honoraria. Padmanabhan: Veralox Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees.

Abstract Introduction: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a potentially life-threatening condition that could occur following exposure to heparin. Accurate and timely diagnosis is critical for appropriate clinical management. Laboratory testing for suspected cases is based on screening for the presence of serum anti-PF4/heparin antibodies using solid-phase enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELSIA) which is known to be sensitive but less specific. A positive ELISA test is followed by functional testing to demonstrate the platelet activating properties and heparin dependence of the pathogenic antibodies. Serotonin release assay (SRA) is considered the gold standard functional test for the diagnosis of HIT. In most anti-PF4/heparin ELISA assays, a high-dose heparin buffer (100U/mL) confirmation step is recommended to demonstrate heparin dependence of detected antibodies and increase the specificity of the assay. The necessity of this confirmation step is controversial with some reports suggesting it could lead to misinterpreting positive ELISA results as negative or indeterminate, especially in cases of very strong and high titer HIT activating antibodies. We hence aimed to investigate the utility of applying this confirmation step as part of an inhouse validation study of a mass spectrometry-coupled SRA (Mayo-SRA). Materials: Three hundred archived serum samples were tested using anti-PF4/heparin IgG antibody ELISA (Immucor Diagnostics, GA, USA). High-dose heparin (100U/mL) confirmation step was performed on all samples with OD units ≥0.4 as recommended by the manufacturer. Samples with OD ≥ 0.4 and ≥50% OD inhibition in the high dose heparin confirmation step are interpreted positive. Mayo-SRA results were compared to a reference 14C SRA method. The 4T clinical score was retrospectively calculated for all patient (range 0-8 points). Results: Of the 300 tested samples, 57 samples were interpreted positive by the anti-PF4/heparin screening ELISA. 33 of the 57 samples were positive using the reference 14C SRA method, whereas 43 samples were positive by Mayo-SRA assay (≥20% serotonin release). Three additional samples were positive by Mayo-SRA, but negative by both screening ELISA and the reference 14C SRA method. All samples with OD units ≥0.4 displayed >50% inhibition in the high-dose heparin regardless of the intensity of the initial OD value or the HIT 4T score, with the exception of one that was negative by both SRA methods and of 1.35 OD value and 6 4T HIT score (Fig-1A). Importantly, thirteen samples were anti-PF4/heparin positive, but SRA negative (by Mayo-SRA and reference method). These samples also displayed positive %heparin inhibition (≥50% OD inhibition) (Fig-1B). Lastly, there were no differences in the degree of %inhibition in samples positive by both reference and Mayo-SRA or Mayo-SRA only (Fig-1B). Conclusion: In our patient cohort, addition of the high dose heparin inhibition confirmation step to the screening anti-PF4/heparin ELISA assay was of no additional diagnostic utility. We hence propose eliminating the heparin inhibition step which would improve laboratory turnaround time, reduce costs, and importantly speed up urgent clinical management decisions. Figure Legend: Fig-1A. No correlation between initial OD values and %OD inhibition using high dose heparin. Scatter plot of all ELISA positive samples (OD ≥0.4) grouped according to OD values. Samples include all SRA-positive and thirteen SRA-negative ELISA-positive samples. Fig-1B. Scatter plot of %OD inhibition comparing samples positive by Mayo-SRA and reference SRA method, positive by Mayo-SRA only, and ELISA-positive SRA-negative by both methods. Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Pruthi: Bayer Healthcare AG: Honoraria; CSL Behring: Honoraria; Merck: Honoraria; Genentech: Honoraria; HEMA Biologics: Honoraria; Instrumentation Laboratory: Honoraria. Padmanabhan: Veralox Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees.

Abstract Background: Therapy-related acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a well-described entity and known to carry a worse prognosis, compared to de novo AML. In the current study, we sought to describe the presenting features and outcome of patients with AML, in the setting of previous history of cancer with or without exposure to chemotherapy or radiotherapy. Methods: A Mayo Clinic database of patients with AML was queried to identify patients with a previous history of cancer, both hematologic and solid tumors. A comparative analysis of presenting features, treatment details and survival were performed between patients with therapy-related AML (Group A) and those with AML and a history of cancer that had been managed with surgery alone (Group B). Results: A total of 250 patients (median age 68 years, range 19-90; 60% males) with AML and a previous history of cancer (both hematologic and solid) were identified; 182 (73%) cases were determined to be therapy-related AML (Group A) while the remaining 68 (27%) did not receive chemotherapy or radiotherapy for their antecedent cancer (Group B) (Table). Among group A patients 106 (58%) were exposed to chemotherapy, 37 (20%) to radiotherapy and 39 (22%) to combination chemotherapy and radiotherapy for their cancer. At the time of AML diagnosis, adverse karyotype was noted in 91 (51%) group A and 12 (19%) group B patients (p<0.0001); the incidence of adverse karyotype in patients exposed to chemotherapy vs radiotherapy alone vs combined chemoradiotherapy was 54% (57/106), 30% (11/37), and 59% (23/39) respectively (p=0.04). Group A patients, compared to those in group B, included more females (46% vs 24%; p=0.001), and more preceding hematologic malignancies (p=<0.0001). Next generation sequencing was performed in 74 patients and the results showed no significant difference between groups A and B (Table). Treatment and outcome in Groups A and B: Intensive and less intensive AML-directed chemotherapy were given to 100 (55%) and 44 (24%) patients in group A and 38 (56%) and 14 (21%) patients in group B (P=0.8). 79 (65%) remissions (complete remission (CR) 42 (29%) and CR with incomplete count recovery (CRi) 37 (26%) were documented in Group A and 37 (71%) remissions (CR: 21 (40%) and CRi=16 (31%) in Group B (P=0.2). After a median follow-up of 8.4 months (range: 0.9-217), 184 deaths were documented: 132 (72.5%) in Group A and 52 (76.5%) in Group B (P=0.5). 52 (36%) patients from Group A and 25 (48%) from Group B relapsed (P=0.1). The median (range) overall survival (OS) rates of patients from Group A was 13 (9-17) months and that of Group B was 14 (10-35) months (P=0.6). The 1-, 3- and 5-year OS rates were 52%, 28%, and 24% in Group A; and 62%, 33%, and 24% in Group B patients (Fig 1). Multivariable analysis identified relapse (HR 2.8, 95% CI 1.7-4.7) and failure to achieve CR/CRi (HR 2.8 95% CI 1.9-4.7) as risk factors for inferior survival (Fig 2a and 2b). The median (range) relapse free survival of patients in Group A was 28 (17 -81) and that of Group B was 27 (14 - 76) months (P=0.9) (Fig 2c). 28 patients underwent allogenic stem-cell transplant (25 in CR1 and 3 in CR2), 23 in Group A and 5 in Group B; the 1-, 3-, and 5-year OS of patients who underwent allogenic stem cell transplant were 88%, 72%, and 72% regardless of the group (Fig 2d). Conclusion: The current study did not find significant differences between AML patients with previous history of cancer with or without exposure to chemo/radiotherapy, in terms of either response to AML-directed therapy or overall or relapse-free survival, despite a higher prevalence of adverse karyotype in therapy-related AML. Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Patnaik: Kura Oncology: Research Funding; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Al-Kali: Astex: Other: Research support to institution; Novartis: Research Funding. Litzow: Pluristem: Research Funding; Actinium: Research Funding; AbbVie: Research Funding; Astellas: Research Funding; Amgen: Research Funding; Jazz: Other: Advisory Board; Omeros: Other: Advisory Board; Biosight: Other: Data monitoring committee.

Abstract Background Clonal cytopenia of undetermined significance (CCUS) is a risk factor for development of myeloid neoplasms (MN) such as myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Therapy-related myeloid neoplasm (t-MN) is defined as the development of a MN in the context of prior DNA damaging therapies including chemotherapy, radiation, and immunosuppressive therapies. CCUS diagnosed in the setting of prior DNA damaging therapy (t-CCUS) and its outcomes are not known. The aim of this study was to study clinicopathological features and outcome of t-CCUS and compare it with t-MN. Methods Patients who had received DNA-damaging therapy and subsequently determined to have CCUS or t-MN were identified. The diagnosis of CCUS was made if the patient had non-diagnostic bone marrow biopsy evaluation combined with evidence of pathogenic myeloid somatic genetic alterations using conventional cytogenetics or next generation sequencing (NGS) panel. Pathogenic/likely pathogenic variants (PV) were stratified by DTA (DNMT3A, TET2, and ASXL1) genes vs. others. Event-free survival (EFS) was calculated using interval from t-CCUS to t-MN with death as a competing risk. Overall survival (OS) for t-CCUS and t-MN patients was calculated using interval from t-CCUS or t-MN diagnoses respectively to the last follow up. Statistical analysis was performed using JMP (v14.1, SAS Institute). Results We identified 30 patients with t-CCUS and 259 patients with t-MN. Eleven (37%) t-CCUS patients developed t-MN and were included in both cohorts (Fig. A). Clinical characteristics of t-CCUS patients are shown in Table 1. Briefly, age (median, interquartile range or IQR) at the diagnosis of primary malignancy and t-CCUS was not different between those who developed t-MN and those did not (P=0.09 and 0.378 respectively). There was no difference in hemoglobin, white blood cells, or ANC between the two groups. Patients who developed t-MN had a significantly lower platelet count (68 vs. 130, P<0.01) and higher bone marrow blast percent (2 vs. 0, P=0.04) compared to those who did not. At t-CCUS diagnosis, cytogenetics was abnormal in 11 (37%) patients and none had complex karyotype (CK). Paired cytogenetic analysis at t-CCUS and t-MN was available for 10 patients: 4 had unchanged karyotype at t-MN, whereas 6 had cytogenetic evolution. In contrast, 213 (83%) of 256 t-MN patients with available cytogenetics had abnormalities and 126/256 (49%) had CK. Thus, a significantly higher proportion of patients had CK t-MN compared to t-CCUS (χ 2 26.4, P<0.01). A 42-gene NGS panel identified 36 PV in 21 patients (median 1, range 1-4) at t-CCUS. The most common PV were in TET2 (37.1%), TP53 (11.4%), DNMT3A (8.6%), and ZRSR2 (8.6%) genes. Two patients had paired NGS available at t-CCUS and t-MN: one had BCOR and U2AF1 PV at t-CCUS and acquired an additional NRAS PV at t-MN. The second patient had 2 PV in TP53 at t-CCUS diagnosis, that remained the only PV identified at t-MN. In the t-MN cohort, median number of PV was 2 (range 1-9). The most common PV identified were TP53 (21.5%), TET2 (6.7%), DNMT3A (6.4%), and ASXL1 (6.4%), whereas 4.8% patients had no PV. Three of 22 patients in the t-CCUS cohort had TP53mut, compared to 55 of 157 in the t-MN cohort (χ 2 4, P=0.05). Management strategies for t-CCUS included observation (20), growth factors (4), treatment of primary malignancy (2), immunosuppressives (1), hypomethylating agent followed by allogeneic SCT (1), and others (2). Following t-CCUS, 9 patients progressed to MDS and 2 to AML with a median of 3.5 months (IQR 1.7-43.4). EFS was 43.4 months (IQR 6.8-80.9). The presence of abnormal cytogenetics (Fig. B) and the absence of DTA-mutations (Fig. C) predicted shorter EFS. At last follow up, 12 (40%) deaths were noted. Four (33%) patients died without developing t-MN. Causes of death in the t-CCUS cohort were: t-MN (3), primary malignancy (1), progressive cytopenia without MN (1), infection (1), graft-vs.-host-disease (1), and undetermined (5). t-MN patients had a significantly shorter survival compared to t-CCUS (Fig. D). Conclusion More than 10% of t-MN patients had a precursor t-CCUS. On the other hand, t-CCUS patients are at a high risk of progression to MN. t-MN is characterized by the acquisition of TP53mut, genomic instability, and a significantly shorter survival compared to t-CCUS. The presence of abnormal cytogenetics and the absence of DTA mutations at t-CCUS predict shorter EFS. Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Litzow: Omeros: Other: Advisory Board; AbbVie: Research Funding; Jazz: Other: Advisory Board; Amgen: Research Funding; Astellas: Research Funding; Pluristem: Research Funding; Actinium: Research Funding; Biosight: Other: Data monitoring committee. Patnaik: Kura Oncology: Research Funding; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Al-Kali: Novartis: Research Funding; Astex: Other: Research support to institution.

Abstract Objective : We describe the Mayo Clinic experience in 797 newly-diagnosed patients with acute myeloid leukemia (AML) serially treated with 7+3 induction chemotherapy that included 3 days of daunorubicin at a daily dose of 60 mg/m2 (dauno-60; n=239) or 90 mg/m2 (dauno-90; n=52), or idarubicin 12 mg/m2 (IDA-12; n=506). Our objective was to compare overall (OS) and relapse-free (RFS) survival outcome. Methods : Newly-diagnosed AML patients seen at our institution and received intensive induction chemotherapy were identified from the Mayo Clinic AML database. Treatment period spanned from January 2004 through May 2021. Follow-up information was updated as of June 2021. Conventional criteria were used to diagnose AML, assign cytogenetic risk category, and classify treatment response. Results : The study group included 797 patients (median age 60 years, range 18-88; 58% males): 506 (63%) patients received IDA-12, 239 (30%) dauno-60, and 52 (7%) dauno-90. The respective median (range) ages were 60 (18-88), 61 (19-82), and 53 (22-72) years (p=0.01) (Table). Primary, secondary, and therapy-related AML accounted for 65%, 25% and 10% of patients treated with IDA-12, 69%, 22%, and 9% of those treated with dauno-60, and 75%, 23% and 2% of patients treated with dauno-90, respectively (p=0.1). The corresponding frequencies of adverse karyotype were 34%, 25% and 25% (p=0.05). CR/CRi was documented in 78% (620/793) of all evaluable patients: IDA-12 80% (400/503), dauno-60 75% (175/238), and dauno-90 87% (45/52) (p=0.1). 210 (34%) patients underwent allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (AHSCT), including 125 (25%), 59 (25%) and 26 (50%) patients, in the three treatment groups, respectively (p=0.0004). After a median (range) follow up 19 (0.2-203) months, 348 (54%) relapses and 518 (65%) deaths were documented. Median (range) survivals for IDA-12, dauno-60 and dauno-90 groups were 21 (0.3-243), 14.5 (0.45-198), and 27.7 (0.2-180) months (p=0.07; figure 1). The respective 1-, 3-, and 5-year OS rates were 67%, 42%, and 34% (IDA-12); 66%, 37%, and 30% (dauno-60); and 78%, 51%, and 49% (dauno-90), respectively; the trend favoring dauno-90 was no longer apparent during age-adjusted analysis (p=0.33). Multivariable analysis that accounted for age, cytogenetic risk category, FLT3-ITD/NPM1 status and AML subtype confirmed the lack of additional contribution from IDA-12 vs dauno-60 vs dauno-90 (p=0.2) while affirming the independent prognostic value of the other four variables; AHSCT carried an additional predictive value for superior survival without altering these results. A total of 348 (54%) relapses were documented: 228 (57%) in the IDA-12; 99 (57%) in the dauno-60; and 21 (47%) in the dauno-90 cohorts (p=0.7); RFS was similar in the three treatment groups (p=0.1; figure 2). Conclusion :In the current large single-institution study of consecutive adult patients with AML, neither the choice of anthracycline (idarubicin vs daunorubicin) or the dose of daunorubicin (60 vs 90 mg/m2) appeared to effect outcome in terms of remission rates or overall or relapse-free survival. The study otherwise confirms the independent favorable effect of younger age, non-adverse karyotype, FLT3-ITD-/NPM1+ status, and AHSCT. Figure 1 Figure 1. Disclosures Patnaik: Kura Oncology: Research Funding; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees; Stemline Therapeutics: Membership on an entity's Board of Directors or advisory committees. Al-Kali: Astex: Other: Research support to institution; Novartis: Research Funding. Litzow: Pluristem: Research Funding; Actinium: Research Funding; Amgen: Research Funding; Jazz: Other: Advisory Board; Biosight: Other: Data monitoring committee; Omeros: Other: Advisory Board; AbbVie: Research Funding; Astellas: Research Funding.

Abstract Introduction: VEXAS syndrome (vacuoles, E1 ubiquitin ligase, X-linked, autoinflammatory, somatic) is a newly recognized inflammatory disorder caused by somatic mutations in the UBA1 gene. Bone marrows from these patients reveal a range of morphological changes in hematopoietic precursor cells. In this study, we aim to assess the laboratory indices and morphologic spectrum of bone marrow pathology in VEXAS syndrome. Methods: We identified 16 cases of VEXAS syndrome. All cases had confirmed UBA1 mutation. We reviewed bone marrow biopsies corresponding to the date of diagnosis. This study was approved by the Mayo Clinic Institutional Review Board. Results: All patients were male with a median age of 73 years - associated autoimmune disorders included Sweet syndrome, inflammatory arthritis, relapsing polychondritis and granulomatosis with polyangiitis. 14/16 patients had anemia with median hemoglobin of 10.4 (Range: 6.7- 14.1 g/dL). 15/16 had macrocytosis with median MCV 110.4 (Range: 94.8- 123.1 /fL). 5/16 had thrombocytopenia with median platelet count 174 (Range: 20- 500 x10^9/L). 7/16 had leukopenia with median WBC 3.65 (Range: 2.4- 11.6 x10^9/ L). The ESR and CRP medians were 61.0 mm/hr and 81.5 mg/L, respectively. Karyotype was performed in 12 patients of which 11 were normal and the remaining case showed a complex karyotype. An NGS panel targeting the most frequent myeloid disorder associated gene mutations was negative in 10/15 cases. GS for myeloid mutations revealed pathogenic mutations in 5 patients, involving genes TET2 (2/5), DNMT3A (2/5), and TP53 (1/5). Conclusions: Bone marrow findings in VEXAS syndrome, in this series of 16 patients, are individually non-specific, yet when taken altogether in the overtly abnormal cases, are very suggestive when the clinical index of suspicion is high. In such scenarios, the combined clinical and bone marrow findings should prompt discussion and consideration for UBA1 mutation testing given the significant clinical implications for patient management and prognosis. Disclosures Patnaik: StemLine: Research Funding; Kura Oncology: Research Funding. Warrington: Eli Lilly: Research Funding; Kiniksa: Research Funding.

AbstractGermline predisposition syndromes (GPS) result from constitutional aberrations in tumor suppressive and homeostatic genes, increasing risk for neoplasia in affected kindred. In this study, we present clinical and genomic data on 144 Mayo Clinic patients with GPS; 59 evaluated prospectively using an algorithm‐based diagnostic approach in the setting of a dedicated GPS/ inherited bone marrow failure syndrome (IBMFS) clinic. Seventy‐two (50%) patients had IBMFS (telomere biology disorders‐32,Fanconi anemia‐18, Diamond Blackfan Anemia – 11, congenital neutropenia–5, Schwachman‐Diamond Syndrome‐5 and Bloom Syndrome‐1), 27 (19%) had GPS with antecedent thrombocytopenia (RUNX1‐FPD‐15, ANKRD26‐6, ETV6‐2, GATA1‐1, MPL‐3), 28 (19%) had GPS without antecedent thrombocytopenia (GATA2 haploinsufficiency‐16, DDX41‐10, CBL‐1 and CEBPA‐1) and 17 (12%) had general cancer predisposition syndromes (ataxia telangiectasia‐7, heterozygous ATM variants‐3, CHEK2‐2, TP53‐2, CDK2NA‐1, NF1‐1 and Nijmegen Breakage Syndrome‐1). Homozygous and heterozygous ATM pathogenic variants were exclusively associated with lymphoproliferative disorders (LPD), while DDX41 GPS was associated with LPD and myeloid neoplasms. The use of somatic NGS‐testing identified clonal evolution in GPS patients, with ASXL1, RAS pathway genes, SRSF2 and TET2 being most frequently mutated. Fifty‐two (91%) of 59 prospectively identified GPS patients had a change in their management approach, including additional GPS‐related screening in 42 (71%), referral for allogenic HSCT workup and screening of related donors in 16 (27%), medication initiation and selection of specific conditioning regimens in 14 (24%), and genetic counseling with specific intent of fertility preservation and preconceptual counseling in 10 (17%) patients; highlighting the importance of dedicated GPS screening, detection and management programs for patients with hematological neoplasms.

Context.— Assessing direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) drug levels by reliable laboratory assays is necessary in a number of clinical scenarios. Objective.— To evaluate the performance of DOAC-specific assays for various concentrations of dabigatran and rivaroxaban, assess the interlaboratory variability in measurement of these DOACs, and investigate the responsiveness of the routine clotting assays to various concentrations of these oral anticoagulants. Design.— College of American Pathologists proficiency testing survey data from 2013 to 2016 were summarized and analyzed. Results.— For dabigatran, the interlaboratory coefficient of variation (CV) of ecarin chromogenic assay was broad (ranging from 7.5% to 29.1%, 6.3% to 15.5%, and 6.8% to 9.0% for 100-ng/mL, 200-ng/mL, and 400-ng/mL targeted drug concentrations, respectively). The CV for diluted thrombin time for dabigatran was better overall (ranging from 11.6% to 17.2%, 9.3% to 12.3, and 7.1% to 11.2% for 100 ng/mL, 200 ng/mL, and 400 ng/mL, respectively). The rivaroxaban-calibrated anti-Xa assay CVs also showed variability (ranging from 11.5% to 22.2%, 7.2% to 10.9%, and 6.4% to 8.1% for 50-ng/mL, 200-ng/mL, and 400-ng/mL targeted drug concentrations, respectively). The prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) showed variable dose- and reagent-dependent responsiveness to DOACs: PT was more responsive to rivaroxaban and aPTT to dabigatran. The undiluted thrombin time showed maximum prolongation across all 3 dabigatran concentrations, making it too sensitive for drug-level monitoring, but supporting its use as a qualitative screening assay. Conclusions.— DOAC-specific assays performed reasonably well. While PT and aPTT cannot be used safely to determine DOAC degree of anticoagulation, a normal thrombin time excludes the presence of dabigatran.