Citations

ABSTRACT We evaluated Bruker Biotyper (version 2.0) matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization–time of flight (MALDI-TOF) mass spectrometry (MS) for the identification of 305 clinical isolates of staphylococci, streptococci, and related genera by comparing direct colony testing with preparatory extraction. Isolates were previously identified by use of phenotypic testing and/or 16S rRNA gene sequencing. Manufacturer-specified score cutoffs for genus- and species-level identification were used. After excluding 7 isolates not present in the Biotyper library, the Biotyper correctly identified 284 (95%) and 207 (69%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively, using extraction. By using direct colony testing, the Biotyper identified 168 (56%) and 60 (20%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively. Overall, more isolates were identified to the genus and species levels with preparatory extraction than with direct colony testing ( P < 0.0001). The analysis was repeated after dividing the isolates into two subgroups, staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci ( n = 217) and “related genera” ( n = 81). For the former subgroup, the extraction method resulted in the identification of 213 (98%) and 171 (79%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively, whereas the direct colony method identified 136 (63%) and 56 (26%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively. In contrast, for the subgroup of related genera, the extraction method identified 71 (88%) and 36 (44%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively, while the direct colony method identified 32 (40%) and 4 (5%) isolates to the genus and species levels, respectively. For both subgroups, preparatory extraction was superior to direct colony testing for the identification of isolates to the genus and species levels ( P < 0.0001). Preparatory extraction is needed for the identification of a substantial proportion of Gram-positive cocci using the Biotyper method according to manufacturer-specified score cutoffs.

Abstract 5-Fluorouracil (5-FU) and 5-fluorodeoxyuridine (FdUrd, floxuridine) have activity in multiple tumors, and both agents undergo intracellular processing to active metabolites that disrupt RNA and DNA metabolism. These agents cause imbalances in deoxynucleotide triphosphate levels and the accumulation of uracil and 5-FU in the genome, events that activate the ATR- and ATM-dependent checkpoint signaling pathways and the base excision repair (BER) pathway. Here, we assessed which DNA damage response and repair processes influence 5-FU and FdUrd toxicity in ovarian cancer cells. These studies revealed that disabling the ATM, ATR, or BER pathways using small inhibitory RNAs did not affect 5-FU cytotoxicity. In stark contrast, ATR and a functional BER pathway protected FdUrd-treated cells. Consistent with a role for the BER pathway, the poly(ADP-ribose) polymerase (PARP) inhibitors ABT-888 (veliparib) and AZD2281 (olaparib) markedly synergized with FdUrd but not with 5-FU in ovarian cancer cell lines. Furthermore, ABT-888 synergized with FdUrd far more effectively than other agents commonly used to treat ovarian cancer. These findings underscore differences in the cytotoxic mechanisms of 5-FU and FdUrd and suggest that combining FdUrd and PARP inhibitors may be an innovative therapeutic strategy for ovarian tumors. Cancer Res; 71(14); 4944–54. ©2011 AACR.

Abstract Background: NKTR-102, a topoisomerase 1 inhibitor-polymer conjugate with reduced peak concentrations and a continuous concentration profile, demonstrated evidence of anti-tumor activity in a broad range of tumors in phase 1 (Von Hoff; EORTC-NCI-AACR 2008, abstract #595), including three patients (pts) with triple negative breast cancer (one confirmed PR by RECIST, one 20% reduction in tumor burden and one 50%+ reduction in CA 27.29). We now report data of a randomized phase 2 study in pts with MBC following progression to taxane-based therapy. Methods: This open-label, phase 2 study enrolled pts to receive NKTR-102 intravenously (IV) at a target dose of 145 mg/m2. Eligible patients had progressive MBC following taxane therapy, ECOG PS 0-1, adequate renal, hepatic, and marrow function. The study randomized pts to receive NKTR-102 q14d or q21d; each schedule followed a two-stage Simon design to ensure adequate response rate prior to proceeding to full enrollment. The primary endpoint was objective response rate (ORR) by RECIST v1.0; secondary endpoints were safety and PFS. Results: 70 pts were randomized from Feb09 to Apr10 and treated (35 on each schedule); 20 patients remain active on study as of 14Jun2010. Median age was 55 (range 33-83); all but 1 pt was female. ECOG PS 0/1 equaled 40%/60%. Prior neo-adjuvant and adjuvant therapy had been administered in 15 and 39 patients respectively; 23 pts had received prior hormonal therapy. Median number of prior non-hormonal regimens for metastatic disease was 2 (range 0-4). All pts had received prior taxane therapy; 11 in the adjuvant setting and 60 in the metastatic setting). 45 pts had received only prior anthracycline/taxane therapy (“AT”); an additional 14 pts had received prior AT/capecitabine therapy (“ATC”). 42 were estrogen or progesterone receptor positive and 20 pts had triple negative disease. Best RECIST response rate (confirmed and unconfirmed) equaled 27% (9 pts; 2 awaiting confirmation) and 24% (8 pts; 4 awaiting confirmation) for the q14d and q21d schedules (n=33 and 34, respectively; 3 patients had not undergone first on-study CT exam). As ORR results were similar for each schedule, the combined best RECIST ORR for in AT/ATC pts equaled 23%/29%, respectively and in pts with triple negative disease, this equaled 25%. Common related Grade 3/4 toxicities (q14d/q21d schedules; n=67 pts with AE data available): diarrhea (15%/12%), neutropenia (15%/9%),fatigue (12%/3%), and dehydration (6%/3%). One pt in each schedule died due to septic shock and acute renal failure secondary to hypovolemia. Conclusion: Single-agent NKTR-102 demonstrates significant anti-tumor activity in pts with MBC, including pts having tumor progression after ATC-based therapy and pts with triple negative disease, with a tolerable toxicity profile. Mature ORR and median PFS will be available by December 2010. Citation Information: Cancer Res 2010;70(24 Suppl):Abstract nr P6-11-01.

Abstract Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia (DIPNECH) is being recognized with increasing frequency. Diagnostic and treatment information is limited. A systematic review is presented, focusing on patient demographics, clinical presentation, diagnosis, treatment options, and outcomes. A systematic electronic literature search was conducted for adult DIPNECH cases reported in the English literature during the past 6 years. Twenty-four DIPNECH cases were identified. Another case from our institution is contributed. Women represent 92% (23 of 25). Mean age at diagnosis was 58 years (range, 36–76 yr). Most were nonsmokers (16 of 24). Symptoms included cough (71%), dyspnea (63%), and wheezing (25%) occurring days to years before diagnosis. Pulmonary function testing showed obstructive ventilatory disease in 54%. Lung nodules were seen in 15 patients (63%), ground-glass attenuation in 7 patients (29%), and bronchiectasis in 5 patients (21%). Histological confirmation required surgical lung biopsy for 88%; however, transbronchial biopsies alone were diagnostic in three patients. Treatments strategies included systemic and inhaled corticosteroids, bronchodilators, and lung resection. Available follow-up data in 17 patients showed 6 clinically improved, 7 who remained stable, and 4 clinically deteriorated. The majority of patients presenting with DIPNECH are middle-aged females with symptoms of cough and dyspnea; obstructive abnormalities on pulmonary function testing; and radiographic imaging showing pulmonary nodules, ground-glass attenuation, and bronchiectasis. In general, the clinical course remains stable; however, progression to respiratory failure does occur. Long-term follow-up and treatment remains incomplete. Establishment of a national multicenter DIPNECH registry would allow formulation of optimal evidence-based guidelines for management of these patients.

When coupled with classical clinical signs and symptoms, magnetic resonance imaging can significantly aid in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). However, the differential diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is large and, in the absence of pathognomonic clinical features, can be challenging to diagnose initially. Some conditions, such as primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL) and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), can mimic clinically some of the symptoms prominent in multiple sclerosis. Early treatment with corticosteroids can dramatically improve patient symptoms in MS and PCNSL. We report a case of a man diagnosed with histologically confirmed relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis who subsequently developed histologically confirmed primary central nervous system lymphoma. Immunosuppressant therapy in the treatment of multiple sclerosis may be a potential catalyst in the development of central nervous system lymphoma. The course of his disease and treatment are presented and the current literature reviewed.